[May-2024] HP HPE7-A07 Exam Basic Questions With Answers [Q19-Q44]

[May-2024] HP HPE7-A07 Exam: Basic Questions With Answers

New 2024 Realistic Free HP HPE7-A07 Exam Dump Questions and Answer

NEW QUESTION # 19
Exhibit.

You updated your gateway to me most recent firmware However after the firmware was updated, the gateway could no longer connect to HPE Aruba Networking Central. Your corporate ITIL procedures require you to implement your backout plan. You connected a console cable to your gateway and saw the following prompt.
Cpxload#
in what order, do you need to execute the following commands to return to the previous firmware version?

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
The sequence to return to the previous firmware version after an unsuccessful update would typically be:
hit any key to stop autoboot(This would prevent the system from automatically booting into the current, problematic firmware.) def_part 1(This command sets the default boot partition, which is likely where the previous working firmware is located.) bootf(This command would boot from the specified flash partition, which after the second step, would be the previous firmware.) osinfo(After the system is booted, this command could be used to confirm the firmware version now running on the gateway.)

NEW QUESTION # 20
Which statements accurately describe OSPF Graceful Restart (when the restarting router is able to Keep its forwarding tables across the restart)? (Select two.)

• A. VSF Failover and Graceful-Restart require a VSF secondary member in the VSF stack
• B. The GR helper role is supported on AOX-CX 6100 switches.
• C. You must ensure your VSF stack has a secondary member when acting as a GR helper
• D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for OSPF and GR are mutually exclusive features.
• E. OSPF Routers listen for Grace-LSAs on each network segment where there is an OSFP adjacency.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
Graceful Restart (GR) allows a router to continue forwarding packets while it restarts its OSPF process. The GR helper role on AOS-CX switches supports routers during this process. OSPFrouters listen for Grace-LSAs to identify neighbors undergoing a graceful restart, maintaining adjacencies with those routers to allow uninterrupted forwarding.

NEW QUESTION # 21
A customer has interfering devices that are seen over the air. They contact you and ask you to configure RAPIDS to help identify interfering and rogue APs. HPE Aruba Networking Central identifies a rogue AP and displays the connected switch port.
How can HPE Aruba Networking Central identify which switch port the AP is connected to?

• A. from the switch MAC address table
• B. from the AP MAC address table
• C. device profiting on the switch
• D. from the switch LLDP neighbors table

Answer: A

Explanation:
HPE Aruba Networking Central can identify which switch port a rogue AP is connected to by using the switch's MAC address table. The MAC address table contains the associations between MAC addresses and the switch ports to which devices (including APs) are connected. When Aruba Central detects a rogue AP, it can look up the MAC address of the rogue AP in the switch's MAC address table to find the specific switch port it is connected to. This enables network administrators to quickly locate and address the rogue AP issue.

NEW QUESTION # 22
A campus topology uses VSXwith a collapsed core topology.The customer added redundant SFP+ transceivers and reconfigured their mobility gateways from a single link to an aggregate Link.You are asked to verify the CLI output for the link aggregation configuration for one of the mobility gateway cluster members below.

What is a valid configuration?

• A.
• B.
• C.
• D.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The configuration shown in Option A is a valid configuration for a multi-chassis link aggregation (MC-LAG) setup. It specifies the use of LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) with a fast rate of LACP PDUs exchange, which is appropriate for creating a resilient and high-throughput link aggregation. The 'vlan trunk allowed all' command allows all VLANs across the trunk, and 'vlan trunk native 100' sets VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for untagged traffic.

NEW QUESTION # 23
You are testing the use of the automated port-access role configuration process using RadSec authentication over VXLAN. During your testing you observed that the RadSec connection will fan during the digital certificate exchange What would be the cause of this Issue?

• A. The switch is configured to establish a TLS connection with a proxy server, not the radius server.
• B. The RADIUS TCP packets are Being dropped and the TLS tunnel is not established.
• C. Tracking mode was set to "dead-only", and the RadSec server was marked as unreachable.
• D. The RadSec server was defined on the switch using an IPv6 address that was unreachable

Answer: B

Explanation:
During the testing of RadSec authentication over VXLAN, if the RadSec connection fails during the digital certificate exchange, it typically indicates an issue with the establishment of the TLS tunnel, which is required for RadSec's secure communication. The failure of TLS tunnel establishment can occur due to RADIUS TCP packets being dropped, preventing the secure exchange of digital certificates necessary for RadSec authentication. The other options, such as IPv6 address reachability, tracking mode settings, and proxy server misconfiguration, are not directly related to the failure of the TLS tunnel establishment during the certificate exchange process

NEW QUESTION # 24
An administrator is creating a fabric withNetConductor in HPE Aruba Networking Central Considering an EVPN VXLAN fabric, click on the most appropriate layer to be configured as a Rome-Reflector Persona.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
In the context of an EVPN VXLAN fabric, the Route-Reflector Persona is most appropriately configured at theServices Aggregationlayer. This layer is responsible for interconnecting different network services and typically includes more robust, higher-capacity devices capable of handling the route-reflection functions for EVPN VXLAN.
In an Aruba Networks fabric, route reflectors are used to optimize the distribution of BGP routes. The Services Aggregation layer, which is centrally located in the network topology, is best suited for this role due to its high availability and ability to efficiently manage routes between the core and access layers.
Therefore, if you were to click on the image provided, you would select the Services Aggregation layer to configure the Route-Reflector Persona.

NEW QUESTION # 25
A BGP routing tablecontains multiple routes to the same destination prefix.
Referring to the table below whichroutewould be marked with a ">" symbol?

• A. Option D
• B. Option E
• C. Option A
• D. Option C
• E. Option B

Answer: B

Explanation:
In BGP, the route marked with a ">" symbol is the best route that is chosen based on BGP attributes in the following order: highest weight (Cisco-specific), highest local preference, originated by BGP running on the local router, shortest AS path, lowest origin type, lowest MED, eBGP over iBGP, closest IGP neighbor, and lowest BGP router ID. Based on the table provided, Option E would be marked with a ">" symbol as it has the highest local preference of 100 which is a decisive factor in the BGP best path selection process.

NEW QUESTION # 26
An ACME company employee complained about a recent poor-quality VoIP call while moving aroundtheir office environment HPE Aruba Networking Central reported a fair UCC score for this callwhile your VoIP engineer reported that their systems reported a MOS of 2,3. The VoIP devices are operatingover the 5GHz frequency band.
What are the possible contributing factors? (Select two.)

• A. 802.1K is disabled in the WLAN Security settings
• B. Coverage AP deployment plans generally don't support enough cell overlap for VoIP.
• C. 802.tr is enabled in the WLAN Security settings.
• D. The client roamed into an area that continuously operates Zigbee.
• E. There was localized interference at the caller's location

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
VoIP quality can be negatively impacted by insufficient cell overlap in AP deployment plans, which can cause poor handoffs between APs as a user moves around. This results in a degraded VoIP experience. Additionally, roaming into an area with continuous Zigbee operation can cause interference with the 5GHz frequency band, further contributing to poor VoIP call quality. The Zigbee communication protocol operates on the same frequency band as Wi-Fi and can introduce noise and interference, which leads to a reduced MOS score, as reported by the VoIP engineer.

NEW QUESTION # 27
A network technician racked up two 9240 mobility gateways in a single cluster that will be terminating 1700 APs in a medium-sized branch office Next, the technician cabled the gateways with two SFP28 Direct Attach Copper (DAC) cables, distributed between a two-member core switching stack and powered them up.
What must the network administrator do next regarding the gateway configuration to ensure maximum wired bandwidth utilization?

• A. Disable the spanning tree and allocate unique VLANs to each port.
• B. Map two physical ports to a port channel on each gateway.
• C. Manually set 25Gbps speeds on all ports.
• D. Make an ports trunk interfaces and permit data VLANs

Answer: B

Explanation:
To maximize wired bandwidth utilization, especially when multiple APs are terminating on mobility gateways, it's best practice to aggregate physical ports into a port channel. This provides redundancy and increased bandwidth by combining the throughput of multiple ports.

NEW QUESTION # 28
Exhibit.

A network administrator attempts to improve multicast traffic flow and performs some packet captures for validation What can the network administrator conclude from the results?

• A. The data rate increased from 6 Mbps to 300 Mops because Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) was configured.
• B. The capture taken after optimization does not show a packet length because Multicast Transmission Optimization was configured.
• C. The type flew remains consistent because Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) was configured.
• D. The data rate increased from 6 Mops to 300 Mops because Broadcast Multicast optimization (BCMCO) was configured.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) is a feature that enhances the delivery of multicast traffic by optimizing the data rate. The before and after optimization images show a significant increase in the data rate, which is a typical result of DMO being configured, as it allows multicast traffic to be transmitted at higher data rates by converting multicast streams into unicast streams for the clients that need them.

NEW QUESTION # 29
Exhibit.

Which wireless connection phase has Just been completed?

• A. L2 authentication and encryption
• B. 802.11 enhanced open association
• C. L3 authentication and encryption
• D. MAC Authentication and 4-way handshake

Answer: A

Explanation:
The wireless connection phase that has just been completed is L2 authentication and encryption. This phase includes processes such as the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) exchange, RADIUS requests and responses, and the 4-way handshake which is characteristic of WPA2-AES encryption.

NEW QUESTION # 30
A customer has deployed an AOS 10 mobility gateway cluster consisting of three controllers at a single site The WLAN is configured to tunnel wireless device traffic to the AOS 10 mobility cluster The clients are authenticated by ClearPass using WPA3-Enterprise (opmode wpa3-aes-ccm-128). The security team has requested the ability to force a wireless device to reauthenticate using ClearPass.
Which steps are required to ensure ClearPass can consistently initiate a change of authorization against an AOS 10 mobility cluster, including during gateway failover scenarios? (Select two)

• A. enable Dynamic Authorization CoA under High Availability - Cluster Configuration
• B. enable manual cluster configuration under High Availability - Cluster Configuration
• C. modify WLAN - SSID - VLAN - Mode Configuration
• D. modify NAS IPv4 address under Security - Advanced - RADIUS Client
• E. set cluster mode to Auto Site under High Availability - Cluster configuration

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
To ensure that ClearPass can initiate a Change of Authorization (CoA) consistently, it's important to enable dynamic authorization to allow RADIUS CoA messages to be processed. This setting typically falls under the high-availability cluster configuration to ensure that it persists across gateway failovers. Additionally, the NAS IP address must be configured under RADIUS client settings to ensure that the correct IP address is used for RADIUS communications, which is necessary for CoA to function correctly.

NEW QUESTION # 31
A customer's infrastructure is set up to use Doth primary and secondary gateway clusters on the SSID profile What is a valid reason for the AP to failover to the secondary gateway cluster?

• A. The secondary gateway cluster is up. hut the AP is unable to reach the secondary gateway cluster
• B. The secondary gateway cluster is heterogeneous.
• C. The primary gateway cluster is up. out the AP is unable to reach the primary gateway cluster.
• D. The secondary gateway cluster is homogeneous.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Aruba's infrastructure, the Access Points (APs) are configured with primary and secondary gateway clusters to ensure connectivity and resiliency. The APs will failover to the secondary gateway cluster if they are unable to reach the primary gateway cluster, even if the primary cluster is operational. This mechanism ensures that the APs maintain connectivity to the network infrastructure for continuous service delivery.

NEW QUESTION # 32
Exhibit.

An engineer has applied the above configuration to R1 and R2 However the routers OSPF adjacency never progresses past the "EXSTART-DR" slate as shown below.

Which configuration action on either router will allow R1 and R2 to progress past the "EXSTART/DR" state?

• A. Ensure the OSPF process is not configured with passive-interface default.
• B. Change the IP address and mask applied to interface 1/1/1.
• C. Remove the layer 3 MTU configuration.
• D. Change R1 and R2 to a network type of point-to-point.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In OSPF, the "EXSTART/DR" state indicates that the routers are trying to establish an adjacency but are unable to progress. This can happen if the OSPF network type is incorrectly configured for the type of connection between the routers. Given that R1 and R2 are connected via a point-to-point link (as suggested by the /31 subnet), setting the network type to point-to-point on both routers will remove the need for DR/BDR election, which is unnecessary on a point-to-point link, and allow OSPF to progress past the "EXSTART" state and form a full adjacency.

NEW QUESTION # 33
A deployment using AP-635S is connectedto a stack of CX 6300s as shown.

The output of the snow LACPinterfaces shews the following:

What is causing this issue?

• A. Spanning tree and loop protect are enabled on both AP uplink ports.
• B. e0 is connected to a smart rate interface, and e1 is connected to a non-smart rate interface.
• C. Each AP interface is connected to a routed-only interlace on different networks
• D. The AP is configured with LACP active

Answer: D

Explanation:
In an Aruba deployment, if an AP's interfaces show different LACP states, it often indicates a configuration mismatch. If one interface is up and the other is blocked as shown in the output,it's likely due to both interfaces on the AP being set to LACP active mode, which is a correct setting for establishing an LACP channel with Aruba switches like the CX 6300 series.

NEW QUESTION # 34
A university owns a campus with several buildings segmented into east and west wings, which are L3 separated. The east wing has 1600 APs. and the west wing has 1200 Aps. Each wing has a single gateway cluster managed by HPE Aruba Networking Central. Each cluster contains one 7210 mobility gateway The gateways are configured with DHCP relay and route all client VLANs. A new business-critical facultyreal-time application requires users to roam within wings but not across wings without disconnections or delay increments.
Which changes must the network administrator make lo successfully meet the requirement without performance degradation matching best practices? (Select two.)

• A. Add a single 7210 mobility gateway to each cluster.
• B. Remove the DHCP relay from the gateways and enable the DHCP server instead
• C. Run L2 for all SSIDs and permit the users' VLANs in the gateway's uplinks.
• D. Replace me 7210 mobility gateway in the east wing with a pair or 9012 mobility gateways
• E. Replace the 7210 mobility gateway in the west wing with a pair of 7030 mobility gateways.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
To support a business-critical faculty real-time application that requires seamless roaming within wings without cross-wing roaming, it's essential to ensure high availability and sufficient capacity. Adding an additional 7210 mobility gateway to each cluster would provide the required redundancy and capacity.
Running L2 for all SSIDs and permitting user VLANs on gateway uplinks would facilitate the necessary traffic flow without L3 segmentation issues, thus supporting seamless roaming within each wing.

NEW QUESTION # 35
Your customer is requesting a4-ciass LAN queuing model tor QoS. Following best practices, match the PHB/DSCP values to the application types.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
Best Effort and Scavenger =DF (0)Bulk and Transactional Data =AF21 (18)Multimedia Streaming =AF31 (26)Real-Time Interactive =EF (46)

NEW QUESTION # 36
A customer is planning to add loT devices that connect wirelessly to the existing 802.1X SSlD. The customer will use ClearPass to authenticate the IoT devices by MAC address but other devices will still need to authenticate by only 802 1X Exhibit.

The customer provided the current configuration and reported their non-loT 802. IX devices are no longer able to connect. Which configuration change can be made to fix the issue?

• A. Add i2-autn-fairtnrougn to the WLAN configuration
• B. Modify max-authentication failures to 0.
• C. Modify opmode wpa3-aes-gcm-256 to opmode wpa2-aes
• D. Remove mac-authentication from the WLAN configuration

Answer: D

Explanation:
The existing configuration for the WLAN ssid-profile has enabled MAC authentication which, while suitable for IoT devices that may not support 802.1X, can interfere with the normal 802.1X authentication process for other devices. By removing themac-authenticationdirective from the WLAN configuration, the non-IoT
802.1X devices should be able to connect without issues as the authentication process will not be disrupted by MAC authentication checks. This adjustment ensures that the WLAN ssid-profile is correctly aligned with the authentication requirements for both IoT and non-IoT devices within the network environment, conforming to the best practices for mixed-device WLAN configurations.

NEW QUESTION # 37
in a WLAN network with a tunneled SSID. you see the following events in HPE Aruba Networking Central:

The customer asks you to investigate log messages What should you tell them?

• A. This indicates a client WLAN driver issue for the client with a MAC address ending with 37:18
  :Od. You should upgrade the client WLAN driver.
• B. This indicates a security issue. The client with a MAC address ending with 37 18;0d Is performing a Denial-of-Service attack on your network. You should track down the client and remove it from the network.
• C. There is a roaming issue Enable Fast Roaming 802.11r and OKC to resolve the issue.
• D. This is normal, expected behavior. No further actions are needed.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The event log showing PMK (Pairwise Master Key) and OKC (Opportunistic Key Caching) key add/update and delete operations is indicative of normal client behavior in a WLAN environment. These events are part of the standard process for maintaining client session security and do not necessarily indicate any issue.

NEW QUESTION # 38
Exhibit.

A university runs its own TV station in the city The IT department deploys a multimedia server so the TV productions can be sent out to the entire campus over the IP network using multicast-based communications in order to improve the bandwidth consumption. PlM sparse Mode and IGMP snooping features are enabled.
When wireless users join the multicast groups, all users connected to the same WLAN experience poor network performance. However, wired users are not affected in this way While troubleshooting the network administrator saves the packet captures shown in the exhibit and concludes that all users even those not joining the multicast group, receive the same multicast flow at slow speeds.
Which features should the network administrator enable to fix the problem?

• A. Dynamic Multicast Optimization and UCC QoS correction
• B. Dynamic Multicast Optimization and Multicast Transmission Optimization
• C. UCC QoS correction and Multicast Transmission Optimization
• D. ARP broadcast conversion into unicast and Multicast Transmission Optimization

Answer: B

Explanation:
Dynamic Multicast Optimization (DMO) and Multicast Transmission Optimization are features that can help address issues with multicast traffic in wireless environments. DMO optimizes the way multicast traffic is transmitted over the air by converting multicast streams into unicast streams to the clients that need them. This reduces unnecessary traffic for clients that have not subscribed to the multicast group and can improve overall network performance. Multicast Transmission Optimization adjusts the transmission rate of multicast frames to ensure they are sent at optimal speeds, addressing the issue of multicast flow being received at slow speeds by all users.

NEW QUESTION # 39
Which option shows the correct Banawidth Control for 1024 kbpsdown and 2048 Kops up for the SSID?

• A.
• B.
• C.
• D.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct Bandwidth Control settings for 1024 Kbps down and 2048 Kbps up for the SSID are shown in Option D. In Option D, the downstream is set at 1024 Kbps and the upstream at 2048 Kbps, both configured per user, which matches the requested configuration. This setup ensures that each user has a guaranteed bandwidth allocation of the specified rates when connected to the SSID, providing a controlled and predictable user experience.

NEW QUESTION # 40
Exhibit.

Which statement is true given the following CLI output from a CX 6300?

• A. The overlay loopbacK addresses are advertised in the faerie with 2d-bit subnet masks
• B. A wired client with IP address 10.203 1.100 is on a remote CX 6300 in the fabric with loopback IP address 172.21.11.2.
• C. A wired client with IP address 10 203 1 100 has a host route that is not being properly advertised
• D. There are no active fabric clients on the CX switch with RD 172.16.10.1

Answer: B

Explanation:
The CLI output provided shows routing information from a CX 6300 switch. The output under "VRF: default" shows various IP routes, including a route for 10.203.1.100/32 with a next hop of 172.21.11.2. This indicates that the route to the client with IP address 10.203.1.100 is known in the network and is reachable via another device in the fabric, which has the loopback IP address 172.21.11.2. Since the route is present in the routing table, it means that the client is known and active within the fabric network.

NEW QUESTION # 41
Your customer's employees connected to a wired network are complaining about a poor user experience. The customer has UXI sensors deployed on their premises. These sensors nave been running for multiple months.
They are testing both the wired network (using the wired Interface of each sensor) and the wireless networks.
Your customer used the UXI dashboard to find the reason for the poor userexperience to find more details, the customer asked you to check the packet captures that have been downloaded from the sensors using the UXI dashboard.
From the zip file downloaded from the UXI sensors, you checked the "datagrams" .pcap file, but you were not able to find any issues How can you explain this?

• A. The UXI sensor could not upload the latest test results to the cloud, so the packet capture is outdated
• B. The datagrams captured on the physical Ethernet interface are in a different .pcap file.
• C. The default filers of the packet captures do not allow tailed tests to be captured by the sensor
• D. The "datagrams- pcap file only contains me successful tests Failed tests are contained in the
  "datagrams-failed" .pcap file

Answer: D

Explanation:
It is a common practice to separate successful and failed test results into different files for ease of troubleshooting. If the "datagrams.pcap" file shows no issues, it's likely because it only contains successful test data, and the failed tests that could explain the poor user experience would be in a different file, such as
"datagrams-failed.pcap."

NEW QUESTION # 42
A customer has deployed anAOS 10 mobilitygateway cluster consisting of three controllers at a single site The WLAN is configured to tunnel wireless device traffic to the AOS 10 mobilitycluster.The clients areauthorized to use WPA2-Personal.An end-userhas opened a ticket with the helpdesk stating they cannot connect their client device to the network.There are other devices currently associated with the SSID with no issues.

Reviewing the output, what Is the issue?

• A. The client device has an invalid pre-shared key.
• B. The client device has an invalid certificate
• C. transition mode is not enabled
• D. The RADIUS response from the authentication server is

Answer: A

Explanation:
The issue indicated by the output is an invalid pre-shared key (PSK). The logs show multiple failures during the WPA2 key exchange process, which points to a mismatch between the PSK configured on the client device and the PSK expected by the AOS 10 mobility gateway.

NEW QUESTION # 43
What directly affects the MCS used by wireless stations? (Select two.)

• A. channel utilization
• B. SNR
• C. number of connected clients
• D. frequency band
• E. retry rate

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
The Modulation and Coding Scheme (MCS) used by wireless stations is directly affected by the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) and the frequency band. Higher SNR can lead to higher MCS values, which means better data rates. The frequency band can affect MCS due to different channel characteristics, such as the presence of interference and propagation properties, which are factors in determining data rates.

NEW QUESTION # 44
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