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ISACA Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following backup procedure would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Differential backup
- B. Daily backup
- C. Incremental backup
- D. Full backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The backup procedure that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup helps to reduce the backup time and storage space, as well as the recovery time, as only the changed files need to be restored. The other options are not backup procedures that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as daily backup (B), differential backup C, or full backup (D).
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is the MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media?
- A. Review the disaster recovery strategy for the organization's social media.
- B. Review costs related to the organization's social media outages.
- C. Review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts.
- D. Review cybersecurity insurance requirements for the organization s social media.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media is to review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts. This is because access control processes help to ensure that only authorized users can access, modify, or share the organization's social media accounts and content, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access or disclosure of sensitive or confidential information.
Access control processes also help to protect the organization's reputation and brand image from being compromised or damaged by unauthorized or inappropriate social media posts. The other options are not as important as reviewing access control processes for the organization's social media accounts, because they either relate to costs (A), insurance (B), or recovery C aspects that are not directly related to the risks posed by social media.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following would provide the BEST basis for allocating proportional protection activities when comprehensive classification is not feasible?
- A. Business process re-engineering
- B. Single classification level allocation
- C. Business dependency assessment
- D. Comprehensive cyber insurance procurement
Answer: C
Explanation:
The BEST basis for allocating proportional protection activities when comprehensive classification is not feasible is a business dependency assessment. This is because a business dependency assessment helps to identify the criticality and sensitivity of business processes and their supporting assets, based on their contribution to the organization's objectives and value proposition. This allows for prioritizing protection activities according to the level of risk and impact. The other options are not as effective as a business dependency assessment, because they either use a single classification level allocation (A), which does not account for different levels of risk and impact; require a significant amount of time and resources to perform a business process re-engineering (B); or rely on external parties to cover potential losses without reducing the likelihood or impact of incidents (D).
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit?
- A. Digital Signature Standard
- B. Secret Key Cryptography
- C. Elliptic Curve Cryptography
- D. Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit. ECC is based on the mathematical properties of elliptic curves, which are curves that have a special shape that makes them suitable for cryptography. ECC can achieve the same level of security as other public key algorithms with much smaller key sizes, which reduces storage and bandwidth requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following BEST characterizes security mechanisms for mobile devices?
- A. Easy to control through mobile device management
- B. Comparatively weak relative to workstations
- C. Configurable and reliable across device types
- D. Inadequate for organizational use
Answer: A
Explanation:
The BEST characteristic that describes security mechanisms for mobile devices is easy to control through mobile device management. This is because mobile device management is a technique that allows organizations to centrally manage and secure mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc., that are used by their employees or customers. Mobile device management helps to enforce security policies, configure settings, install applications, monitor usage, wipe data, etc., on mobile devices remotely and efficiently. The other options are not characteristics that describe security mechanisms for mobile devices, but rather different aspects or factors that affect security mechanisms for mobile devices, such as weakness (B), inadequacy C, or reliability (D).
NEW QUESTION # 53
Availability can be protected through the use of:
- A. redundancy, backups, and business continuity management
- B. access controls. We permissions, and encryption.
- C. user awareness training and related end-user training.
- D. logging, digital signatures, and write protection.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Availability can be protected through the use of redundancy, backups, and business continuity management.
This is because these measures help to ensure that systems, data, and services are accessible and functional at all times, even in the event of a disruption or disaster. The other options are not directly related to protecting availability, but rather focus on enhancing confidentiality (A), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 54
Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Social engineering
- C. Command injection
- D. Social injection
Answer: B
Explanation:
Security awareness training is MOST effective against social engineering threats. This is because social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick users into revealing sensitive or confidential information, or performing actions that compromise security. Security awareness training helps to educate users about the common types and techniques of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, etc., and how to recognize and avoid them. Security awareness training also helps to foster a culture of security within the organization and empower users to report any suspicious or malicious activities. The other options are not types of threats that security awareness training is most effective against, but rather types of attacks that exploit technical vulnerabilities or flaws in systems or applications, such as command injection (A), denial of service (B), or SQL injection (D).
NEW QUESTION # 55
The integrity of digital assets can be controlled by:
- A. read access restrictions, database normalization, and patching.
- B. access controls, encryption, and digital signatures.
- C. user awareness training and related end-user testing.
- D. redundancy, backups, and business continuity management.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which type of firewall blocks many types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and structured query language (SQL) injection?
- A. Web application
- B. Intrusion detection
- C. Stateful inspection
- D. Host-based
Answer: A
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is specifically designed to monitor, filter, and block HTTP traffic to and from a web application. It is different from other types of firewalls because it can filter the content of specific web applications. By inspecting HTTP traffic, a WAF can prevent attacks stemming from web application security flaws, such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS), file inclusion, and security misconfigurations.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following security mechanisms provides the BEST protection of data when a computer is stolen?
- A. Cryptographic hash function
- B. Digital signature
- C. Password-based access control
- D. Secret key encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Secret key encryption, also known as symmetric encryption, involves a single key for both encryption and decryption. This method provides the best protection for data on a computer that is stolen because it renders the data unreadable without the key. Even if the thief has access to the physical hardware, without the secret key, the data remains secure and inaccessible.
NEW QUESTION # 58
in key protection/management, access should be aligned with which of the following?
- A. Least privilege
- B. Position responsibilities
- C. System limitation
- D. Role descriptions
Answer: A
Explanation:
In key protection/management, access should be aligned with the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks and no more. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of sensitive data or systems.
NEW QUESTION # 59
What should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when an organization's virtual private network (VPN) is implemented on employees' personal mobile devices?
- A. Users may access services not supported by the VPN.
- B. Users may store the data in plain text on their mobile devices.
- C. Users may access services over the VPN that are network resource intensive.
- D. Users may access the corporate network from unauthorized devices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When employees use personal mobile devices to access a VPN, the greatest concern for an IS auditor is the potential for sensitive data to be stored in an unsecured manner. If data is stored in plain text, it could be easily accessed by unauthorized parties if the device is lost, stolen, or compromised. This risk is heightened when the devices are not managed by the organization's IT department, which would typically enforce security policies such as encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing?
- A. Budget for additional technical resources
- B. Surplus processing capacity
- C. Top management support
- D. Budget for additional storage hardware
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important factor to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing is top management support. This is because top management support helps to provide the vision, direction, and resources for implementing continuous auditing within the organization. Top management support also helps to overcome any resistance or challenges that may arise from implementing continuous auditing, such as cultural change, stakeholder buy-in, process reengineering, etc. Top management support also helps to ensure that the results and findings of continuous auditing are communicated and acted upon by the relevant decision-makers and stakeholders. The other options are not factors that are more important than top management support for ensuring the successful implementation of continuous auditing, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as storage hardware (A), technical resources (B), or processing capacity (D).
NEW QUESTION # 61
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
- A. risk quantification
- B. risk elimination.
- C. risk aggregation.
- D. risk prioritization.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A), eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
NEW QUESTION # 62
The GREATEST benefit of using the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix is that it provides:
- A. a mapping to multiple control frameworks.
- B. templates of vetted cloud auditing programs.
- C. severity rankings for identified deficiencies.
- D. control specifications prioritized by importance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a cybersecurity control framework specifically designed for cloud computing. It consists of a comprehensive set of control objectives that are structured across different domains covering all key aspects of cloud technology. One of the greatest benefits of using the CCM is its ability to map these controls to multiple industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and control frameworks. This mapping facilitates a streamlined approach to compliance and security assurance across various standards, making it an invaluable tool for organizations operating in the cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 63
When performing a teaming exercise, which team works to integrate the defensive tactics and controls from the defending team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the attacking team?
- A. Yellow team
- B. Red team
- C. Black team
- D. Purple team
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a teaming exercise, the purple team is responsible for integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team (defensive) with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team (attacking). The purple team's role is to ensure that the defense mechanisms are effective against the identified threats and to improve the overall security posture of the organization. They work collaboratively with both the red and blue teams to provide a comprehensive view of the organization's security readiness1.
NEW QUESTION # 64
An IS auditor has learned that a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API). Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Resource contention
- C. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
- D. Identity spoofing and phishing
Answer: C
Explanation:
The MOST important thing for an IS auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors when a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API) is the impact on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the cloud service. An API is a set of rules and protocols that allows communication and interaction between different software components or systems. An API is often used by cloud service providers to enable customers to access and manage their cloud resources and services. However, if an API is not adequately secured, it can expose the cloud service provider and its customers to various threats, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, tampering, denial-of-service attacks, or malicious code injection.
NEW QUESTION # 65
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
- A. risk quantification
- B. risk elimination.
- C. risk aggregation.
- D. risk prioritization.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A), eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?
- A. Cybersecurity risk scenarios
- B. Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage
- C. Cybersecurity operations management
- D. Industry-specific security regulator
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following provides additional protection other than encryption to messages transmitted using portable wireless devices?
- A. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
- B. Intrusion prevention system (IPS)
- C. Virtual private network (VPN)
- D. Endpoint protection
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides additional protection to messages transmitted using portable wireless devices by creating a secure and encrypted tunnel for data transmission. This helps protect the data from being intercepted or accessed by unauthorized entities. While encryption secures the content of the messages, a VPN secures the transmission path, adding an extra layer of security.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Automated response
- B. Interface with firewalls
- C. Intrusion prevention
- D. Back doors into applications
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is automated response. This is because an IDS is a system that monitors network or system activities for malicious or anomalous behavior, and alerts or reports on any detected incidents. An IDS can also perform automated response actions, such as blocking traffic, terminating sessions, or sending notifications, to contain or mitigate the incidents. The other options are not features of an IDS, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as intrusion prevention (A), interface with firewalls C, or back doors into applications (D).
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following is a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon?
- A. SSH
- B. IPsec
- C. VPN
- D. SFTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. SSH.
SSH stands for Secure Shell, a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon. SSH allows users to remotely access and execute commands on a server without exposing their credentials or data to eavesdropping, tampering or replay attacks. SSH also supports secure file transfer protocols such as SFTP and SCP1.
VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, a technology that creates a secure, encrypted tunnel between two or more devices over a public network such as the Internet. VPN allows users to access resources on a remote network as if they were physically connected to it, while protecting their privacy and identity2.
IPsec stands for Internet Protocol Security, a set of protocols that provides security at the network layer of the Internet. IPsec supports two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. Transport mode encrypts only the payload of each packet, while tunnel mode encrypts the entire packet, including the header. IPsec can be used to secure VPN connections, as well as other applications that require data confidentiality, integrity and authentication3.
SFTP stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol, a protocol that uses SSH to securely transfer files between a client and a server over a network. SFTP provides encryption, authentication and compression features to ensure the security and reliability of file transfers.
1: SSH (Secure Shell) 2: What is a VPN? How It Works, Types of VPN | Kaspersky 3: IPsec - Wikipedia : [SFTP - Wikipedia]
NEW QUESTION # 70
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Hands-on testing
- B. Inventory and discovery
- C. Evaluation of implementation details
- D. Risk-based shakeout
Answer: B
Explanation:
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 71
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